The Christian Onslaught
Even though there is no basis to "believe" Jesus was the Messiah, there's no way the faith could have lasted for nearly two thousand years without being able to somehow refer back to the Jewish Scriptures. The Christian claim is that beyond the verses of the Bible which Jews and Christians both believe to be Messianic, there was a greater, underlying quantity of verses that are in the Bible which also describe the Messiah. The following is an excerpt a typical Christian "prooftext" list. All quotes are from the King James Bible.
What must the Messiah do in order for us to know that he is the Messiah? He must suffer for our sins as the prophet Isaiah foretold in the Bible:
"But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed." - The Book of Isaiah 53:5
Does the Bible tell us where on his body he will be wounded? His hands and feet will be pierced:
"And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends." - The Book of Zechariah 13:6
"For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet." - The Book of Psalms 22:16
His back and face will be smitten:
"I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks to them that plucked off the hair: I hid not my face from shame and spitting." - The Book of Isaiah 50:6
"Now gather thyself in troops, O daughter of troops: he hath laid siege against us: they shall smite the judge of Israel with a rod upon the cheek." - The Book of Micah 5:1
Not one bone in His body shall be broken:
"He keepeth all his bones: not one of them is broken." - The Book of Psalms 34:20
In Bible prophecy the Messiah is beaten so badly that His appearance is disfigured more than any man!
"As many were astonied at thee; his visage was so marred more than any man, and his form more than the sons of men:" - The Book of Isaiah 52:14
What else must the Messiah endure to fulfill Bible prophecy? The Bible teaches that G-d will give Him to be the flawless and perfect sacrifice for our sins:
"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth. Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand." - The Book of Isaiah 53:8-10
"Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors: and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors." - The Book of Isaiah 53:12
He will be resurrected after 3 days:
"After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight." - The Book of Hosea 6:2
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Full of fire and brimstone! Missionaries are counting that there's no way a Jew (or anyone else) can resist Christianity after reading that! Actually, if you examine these verses in detail, check them for correct translations and proper context, you'll find this list gives you more reasons to walk away from Christian dogma than to follow it. If a missionary presents a list like this, and you find it to be fraudulent, you not only should be unmoved toward the theology, but the flaws should show you the low level of honesty involved therein.
Let us begin a study of each of these, to show how simply these claims are refuted.
Hosea 6:2 After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight. (KJV) So, as the above claim makes, this is a prophecy of the divine resurrection. There is a huge grammatical problem here. "He" will raise "us" up. Who is being resurrected here? I thought Jesus was one man. Suddenly he's more than one guy? What happened? The reality is what was being discussed in this verse. This was talking about the Northern Kingdom of Israel, and how they could be healed of their sins and live in G-d's ways. No resurrected Messiah there. Have I already illustrated the level of honesty involved here?
Psalms 22:16 For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet. (KJV)
If we are to read this verse as it stands from the Christian point of view, only one person in the history of the world has had their hands and feet pierced. Secondly, during a crucifixion the hands and feet were not the body parts pierced, rather it was the wrists and ankles. Thirdly, we are dealing with a mistranslation. What you see for the word "pierced" is translated from the Hebrew "ka'ari," which means "like a lion." This word is used again in that very same Psalm:
Psalm 22:21 Save me from the lion's mouth: for thou hast heard me from the horns of the unicorns. (KJV)
Odd, that KJV would translate the very same word as "pierced" in verse 16, but as lion in verse 21. I suppose if the word really did mean "pierce" then verse 21 should read "Save me from the pierced mouth" but of course, that makes no sense.
Micah 5:1 Now gather thyself in troops, O daughter of troops: he hath laid siege against us: they shall smite the judge of Israel with a rod upon the cheek. (KJV)
how does this verse refer to the Messiah, and furthermore, how does it would prove anyone is the Messiah? Admittedly, the verses that follow it are messianic in nature, but this verse by itself proves nothing. Christians believe that the "judge of Israel" involved here is Jesus. When was Jesus ever a judge? Did he sit on the Sanhedrin, or are we to read the New Testament and find that he was condemned by it? Jesus was never a judge, and second coming speculations do not serve as any proof.
This line of reasoning is grievously flawed. This is a prooftext of circular reasoning. Christians say the "judge of Israel" is smote with a rod upon the cheek, and then they connect that to Jesus, who was beaten prior to his execution. So, in essence, the person being presented this prooftext has to believe Jesus was the Messiah before it can be used as a proof!
Next verse in question:
Zechariah 13:6 And [one] shall say unto him, What [are] these wounds in thine hands? then he shall answer, [Those] with which I was wounded [in] the house of my friends. (KJV)
This must be about Jesus, because it mentions someone with pierced hands! And, there's no mistranslation in this verse, like the Psalm above! It's gotta be about Jesus. Boy, I have a hard time resisting this one. I hereby agree with Christians that this verse can be applied to Jesus. Surprised? If a Christian will use this as a prooftext, then I am smart enough to allow it. Let me give you a hint. Try to figure out why the New International Version changed the rendering here:
Zechariah 13:6 If someone asks him, 'What are these wounds on your body?' he will answer, 'The wounds I was given at the house of my friends.' (NIV)
The publishers of the NIV realized the intense nature of the problem this verse represents. That's why they altered it from "hands" to "body." They didn't want Christians to look to this verse and say it pointed to the crucified Jesus, because they actually took the time (something rather unusual among Christians) to read the context in which this verse was written. Let's examine this verse in its context:
Zechariah 13:1 In that day there shall be a fountain opened to the house of David and to the inhabitants of Jerusalem for sin and for uncleanness. [2] And it shall come to pass in that day, saith the LORD of hosts, [that] I will cut off the names of the idols out of the land, and they shall no more be remembered: and also I will cause the prophets and the unclean spirit to pass out of the land. [3] And it shall come to pass, [that] when any shall yet prophesy, then his father and his mother that begat him shall say unto him, Thou shalt not live; for thou speakest lies in the name of the LORD: and his father and his mother that begat him shall thrust him through when he prophesieth. [4] And it shall come to pass in that day, [that] the prophets shall be ashamed every one of his vision, when he hath prophesied; neither shall they wear a rough garment to deceive: [5] But he shall say, I [am] no prophet, I [am] an husbandman; for man taught me to keep cattle from my youth. [6] And [one] shall say unto him, What [are] these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, [Those] with which I was wounded [in] the house of my friends. (KJV)
This is a prime example of the light you shine when you put a Christian prooftext in its proper context. Why do I not have a problem with Christians applying verse 6 to Jesus? It is simple: the person who is wounded in verse 6 is indicated throughout the preceding verses as a punished false prophet! What is important to indicate here is that this is the case with MOST Christian prooftexts.
If not mistranslated or fabricated, they are most commonly taken completely out of context.
This isn't a case of it happening once, or twice. This is the very essense of Christianity. Now we go to another verse that was listed above.
Isaiah 50:6 I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks to them that plucked off the hair: I hid not my face from shame and spitting. (KJV)
If you read this chapter in it's entirety, you'll find it to be rather obvious that it is not speaking about a future age of perfection or a Davidic king reigning over us, but rather, that this is the prophet Isaiah talking about himself. Next issue:
Psalms 34:20 He keepeth all his bones: not one of them is broken. (KJV)
Does this verse speaks of a future utopia and a descendent of King David ruling over us? This has nothing to do with a descendent of King David. In this Psalm, King David himself was speaking of righteous people. How you get the future king of the Jewish people out of this is beyond me. Christians, however, draw a parallel between this Psalm and this following verse:
Exodus 12:46 In one house shall it be eaten; thou shalt not carry forth ought of the flesh abroad out of the house; neither shall ye break a bone thereof. (KJV)
This verse is referring to the Passover lamb. The Gospel of John is the only gospel to equate Jesus to the lamb, and somehow Christians think it proves Jesus is the Messiah. (As a tangent, it's important to note that the verse from Exodus specifically says in one house. The Passover sacrifice was never a communal sacrifice.) This Psalm correlates with how the Gospel of John quotes Exodus in its crucifixion narrative.
John 19:36 For these things were done, that the scripture should be fulfilled, A bone of him shall not be broken. (KJV)
The implication here is that two thousand years ago Jesus was a man who for the first time in human history never had a bone in his body broken, and for that reason, he is King of the Jews. Is this proof of Messianic kingship?
For the explanation of the Christian misuse of the abovementioned Isaiah 52-53 references, click here.
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